I’m currently reading Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban (a.k.a. HP3) and it’s great, but I do have a quibble with Ms. Rowling. In the first 50 pages, there are multiple references to anti-witch activity/sentiment (notably witch-burning) during the medieval period:

Witch Burning in the Fourteenth Century…
…people…were particularly afraid of magic in medieval times…
…medieval witch burnings…

HP3 is of course a work of fiction, and it’s true that there was anti-witch activity/sentiment (including witch-burning) during the medieval period, but — and this is a big but — large-scale anti-witch activity (large-scale prosecution, witch trials, witch burnings) did not take place until the 16th and 17th centuries, during the early-modern age. The height of anti-witch hysteria was not, as so commonly promulgated, during the medieval period (the so-called “Dark Ages”), but during the early-modern period (alongside the Renaissance).